英語訳
[Right Page]
410
Private Commentary on the Great Commentary of Hetuvidyā, Volume 8
62
[Upper Section]
And in inferences that violate mutual non-extreme-establishment in the thesis, how could there not be this basis non-establishment probans non-establishment? [so to speak]. "If one says it depends on the reason" is another counter-rescue. Using the reason as the basis for the example [so to speak]. "Like lacking thesis and reason, etc." is a challenge. If so, there should be this fault in reason non-establishment inferences [so to speak]. This means the challenge has entered one's own position. This is because above, as the commentary master's correct position, he specifically made the reason the basis of the example, presented methods, and raised the fourth fault. In the text saying "like lacking thesis and reason," does this mean the reason of the thesis? Also, the text saying "the thesis-predicate on the example is impermanent [through] because it depends on atoms" is unclear. Atoms are homologous examples of permanence. Why call it impermanent? Also, this appears to challenge the inference of sound's permanence in the probans non-establishment method stated in the treatise. This has good reason. If it were impermanent as the text suggests, what reason would there be to challenge the inference of sound's impermanence? Having this doubt, I consulted the Myōtō Commentary. They all say "permanent" and do not say "impermanent." Therefore, following that commentary, I have examined regarding the original "permanent." Perhaps this is a discrepancy in some editions. This should be investigated.
[One character indent]
Regarding this matter, with my dull nature, as an impromptu evaluation, like being deaf and blind, while the textual interpretation remains unclear, I barely explore the subtle meaning of the textual form. This probably differs from the Myōtō Commentary, etc. I should re-examine this later.
[End character indent]
"Question: Previously the probans on the example [through] what does the probans depend on?": Previously, the permanence and non-obstruction on the example are called probans on the example. This question's meaning says: If the permanent probans on the atoms example does not use the thesis-predicate permanent thesis as its basis, then what does this permanent probans use as its basis? [so to speak]. Because originally there is no probans of non-materiality of the reason on the atoms. Is this questioned regarding the permanent probans?
[Lower Section]
"Answer: Two explanations [through] no reason means no basis": The two explanations are: first, the example uses the reason as its basis; second, the example uses the example's basis as its basis. These are the two explanations. Generally, regarding the example's basis, there are two: first is the supporting basis, which is the reason; second is the essential basis, which is the example's basis. Generally, that examples possess these two bases is inevitable. Both must be complete. Now these two explanations mean: regarding what is disputed as the example's basis, does one discuss it regarding the supporting basis [this is one], or is it an explanation discussing it regarding the essential basis [this is one]? The current text first raises the initial explanation. The initial explanation's intention is that the atoms homologous example should necessarily make the non-obstruction reason its essential nature. But since the non-obstruction reason does not exist upon the obstructed atoms, this example already lacks a basis. Since it already becomes lacking a basis, it becomes probans non-establishment's basis non-establishment [so to speak]. According to this meaning, all probans non-establishments should have the meaning of basis non-establishment.
[One character indent]
Question: Above, in clarifying probans non-establishment's essential non-establishment, regarding the meaning of depending on reasons, they do not immediately make general probans non-establishment into basis non-establishment, but present separate methods to reveal this fault. Namely, Sāṃkhya establishes against Buddhism: "Thought experiences all dharmas. Because it is the self. Like sense organs such as eyes." This is that method. This
[Left Page]
411
Private Commentary on the Great Commentary of Hetuvidyā, Volume 8
63
[Upper Section]
indeed has probans non-establishment in the example, and since there is one-sided non-establishment in the reason, the supporting basis's essence does not establish, becoming probans non-establishment's basis non-establishment. That meaning is most reasonable. But what is established now differs from this approach. How could the commentary's upper and lower parts cause contradiction? What uncertainty is there regarding non-obstruction's basis? Therefore, the current text should also be understood like the above. "No reason means no basis" means: because the reason's essence is not extremely established [one-sided, or mutual, etc. should follow accordingly], there is no basis for the example.
Answer: What is established now follows the back-writing's approach. The approach of the challenge also seems to have its reasoning. But carefully considering it, the back-writing's intention is extremely profound. Why? Regarding these two explanations, the first explanation seems somewhat contrary to the treatise. That is, generally probans non-establishment is merely an example's fault. Non-obstruction reason, atoms homologous example - this is that method. This means although the non-obstruction reason has no fault of non-establishment, it becomes a fault because the meaning of non-obstruction probans is lacking at the atoms' location. Only the example's location suffers the fault. Therefore, even if opening the four non-establishments, one should not exceed this boundary. But why, when creating basis non-establishment, does one relate matters to reason's non-establishment, not limiting to the example's single location? Having this doubt now, the back matter extensively takes the first explanation's obtained meaning, wanting to harmonize with the treatise. That is, the first explanation's meaning is that having non-establishment in the reason and making probans non-establishment into the example's basis non-establishment probans non-establishment is fundamental. Above, presenting the inference "because it is the self," below creating repeated questions and answers, all
[Lower Section]
are this type. But having no non-establishment in the reason and immediately making probans non-establishment into basis non-establishment probans non-establishment - this is definitely not permitted. The treatise's stated boundary merely discusses faults at the example's single location. Regarding this boundary, the portion of creating the four non-establishments is already complete and should definitely exist. Therefore, the current "because depending on reason, there is no essence" means: taking the absence of the non-obstruction reason on the example as basis non-establishment [so to speak].
[End character indent]
"Question: If reason lacks basis [through] this is basis non-establishment in the example": The question's meaning says: When the reason lacks a basis, what fault is there in the example? [so to speak]. This wants to question and reveal the type mentioned above where having non-establishment in the reason becomes the example's probans non-establishment basis non-establishment. The answer's meaning is: if the reason lacks basis, there is a non-establishment fault in the reason. If there is a non-establishment fault in the reason, there is basis non-establishment in the example [so to speak]. Therefore, according to the first explanation's meaning, regarding the example's probans non-establishment basis non-establishment, there are two types. One immediately makes probans non-establishment into basis non-establishment. One becomes basis non-establishment because there is non-establishment in the reason. The first set of questions and answers reveals the first type, the current questions and answers reveal the latter type.
"Reason essence non-existent" means reason essence non-establishment [so to speak].
"Question: If one says reason lacks basis, etc.": This questions regarding the above latter type. The meaning says: previously saying if there is no basis thesis, there is non-establishment in the reason; if there is non-establishment in the reason, the example lacks basis - but having only the thesis absent while reason and example exist, etc., various faults of deficiency - how could these exist? As established now, if the thesis is absent, reason and example necessarily cannot exist accordingly.