英語訳
## Page Twenty-Six
### [Upper Section]
(Continued from previous page) If there is no ground of clouds (*un-chi*) as a basis, upon what basis would one distinguish (the different heavens)? Hence it is known: even in the case of the fourth dhyāna (*dai-shi-jōryo*), there must necessarily be a ground of clouds as a basis. However, concerning the name "cloudless" (*muun*): the present commentary's interpreter (states that) although there is a ground of clouds, since the karmic fruition (*kahō*) of those heavenly beings is superior, (they are) not bound to the clouds. [Colophon note: Below "之" there is likely a missing character(s).] Hence (the heavens) are interpreted as being called "cloudless." The (phrase) "abiding apart from clouds" also carries this meaning. If there were no ground of clouds whatsoever, one would simply say "there is no ground of clouds." To say "departing from clouds" (*riunkyū*) rather appears to indicate that a ground of clouds does exist.
A further objection: Even if there were no ground of clouds, how could there be no differentiation among the heavenly realms? In the formless realm (*mushiki-kai*) there is no ground of clouds, yet (the heavens) are designated "the realm of boundless space" (*kū-muhen-sho*) etc., citing the places of habitation. Also, (their distinctions) should be able to be established in dependence on (those places). How (should this be understood)?
Response (*e*): The formless realm, because it lacks material form (*gishiki*), even without a ground of clouds, differentiates (its levels) by the superiority or inferiority of birth. The form realm (*shiki-kai*) is different from that. If there were no ground of clouds (in the form realm), how could (its levels) be distinguished?
One person says (this captures the intent of the *Shōsaku*): Although there is no coarse ground of clouds, there may well be a subtle ground of clouds. The name "departing from clouds" is established in reliance on this understanding. According to the interpretation in the *Fa-yuan-zhu-lin* (*Hōon-jurin* — Grove of Jewels of the Dharma Garden), the formless realm is named as such in reliance on the absence of coarse material form (*sōshiki-gyō*), while subtle material form (*misai-shiki-gyō*) is said to exist. This (precedent) may be taken as a parallel example. Also, the statement that the formless realm has no (fixed) location, and that (its distinctions) arise from birth in four kinds, etc. (etc.) — should be examined with reference to the *Kyōron-tsūyō-shō* (Essential Compendium on Sūtras and Śāstras).
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**Question:** In the sūtra, in the context of clarifying the mutual inclusion (*sōshō*) between the *dharmakāya* and all dharmas, (the question is): when one says "all dharmas" (*issai shohō*), can the *dharmakāya* be included?
**(Advancing a position):** When the sūtra says "all dharmas," it does not include the *dharmakāya* (etc.). Regarding this: (the sūtra) already says "all dharmas" — how then can it not include the *dharmakāya*? Moreover, when it says "*shohōshin*" (all dharmas(-body)), it includes all dharmas; (so) when it says "all dharmas," why does it not include the *dharmakāya*?
### [Lower Section]
([Colophon note:] Jōon raised this question at the four-season lectures.)
**Personal view:** Form (*sō*) and nature (*shō*) are neither identical nor different (*fuitsu-fuii*). If one relies on the gate of "non-difference" (*fui-mon*), the *dharmakāya* and all dharmas can mutually include one another. However, regarding this particular sūtra passage, the commentary interprets it (as follows): "Because the principle-substance of *tathatā* (*shinnyori-tai*) is universally constant (*tsūjō*), it includes all dharmas. The remainder is the opposite of this, hence does not include the *tathatā* (= *dharmakāya*)" (etc.). The intent is this: when the *dharmakāya* relies on the gate of non-difference, it pervades all dharmas. Since it is already said to pervade, what dharma would it not include? Next, when (the text) says "all conditioned dharmas" (*ui-issai-hō*), (this is) when one relies on the gate of "non-identity" (*fuitsu-mon*); the conditioned (*ui*) has no quality of being pervasive and eternal (*henjō no gi*). How then could it include the *dharmakāya*? To restate the intent: the *dharmakāya* is that whose substance (*tai*) embodies the quality of gathering and including (*eju-gi*), pervading all dharmas; because it manifests the gate of non-difference, it includes all dharmas. When the conditioned is called "all dharmas," although it manifests the gate of non-identity, it does not clarify the quality of pervasion (*hen no gi*). Hence there is a difference between the two.
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**Question:** The sūtra text says: "If one wishes and desires to seek the three super-knowledges and six supernatural powers (*sanmyō-rokutsū*) of śrāvakas and pratyekabuddhas (*dokuryaku*)" (etc.). In that case, among the *buhyō-dokuryaku* (group-dwelling pratyekabuddhas), are there those who have attained liberation through wisdom alone (*e-gedatsu-sha*), or how (should this be understood)?
**Both sides:** If (there are liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners among the *buhyō-dokuryaku*): examining the present sūtra text, above (it says) "if one wishes to seek the fruit of stream-enterer (*yoru-ka*)" etc. — (this refers to) liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners (*e-gedatsu-sha*) among śrāvakas, who, because they have not eliminated the obstruction to meditative concentration (*jō-shō*), do not attain fundamental concentration (*konpon-jō*), and hence the supernatural powers arising from concentration are absent. Next, "if one wishes and desires to seek the three super-knowledges, six supernatural powers, śrāvakas, and pratyekabuddhas" etc. — this designates the śrāvakas who have attained the six supernatural powers. These are precisely the liberation-through-both-means practitioners (*ku-gedatsu-sha*). The pratyekabuddhas are likewise. Since the sūtra text, in clarifying śrāvakas, mentions liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners, but regarding pratyekabuddhas only cites liberation-through-both-means practitioners, it is known that among the group-dwelling pratyekabuddhas (*buhyō-dokuryaku*) there are no liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners. Based on this, the present commentary judges that the group-dwelling pratyekabuddhas (*buhyō-dokuryaku*), though distinguished into two types, both
### [Page Twenty-Seven, Upper Section continues]
attain liberation through both means (*ku-gedatsu*), and judges that the group-dwelling pratyekabuddhas definitely attain liberation through both means (*ku-gedatsu*). If this is accepted as the case, the Master (in his *Sanrin-shō*) elsewhere has made judgments of this type (i.e., that there are liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners). How (should this be understood)? ([Colophon note:] Gyōen raised this question at the four-season lectures.)
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**Question (also the other side):** Among group-dwelling pratyekabuddhas (*buhyō-dokuryaku*), can there be those who have not attained supernatural powers?
One person says: A treatise (*ron*) clarifies "those who have attained the cessation concentration (*metsujō*): namely, there are (*u*) those among the non-learners (*mugaku*, *aśaikṣa*), or there are holy ones among the learners (*ugaku*, *śaikṣa*)" (etc.). Since the word "there are" (*u*) is already placed (there), it is clearly known: even among the non-learners, not all of them attain (cessation concentration). There are those who attain it and those who do not. That class of non-learners extends to both śrāvakas and pratyekabuddhas. Since among pratyekabuddhas there are already those who do not attain the cessation concentration (*metsujō*), these are precisely those who do not attain the nine successive concentrations (*ku-jisai-jō*). This class accordingly does not attain supernatural powers. Supernatural powers reside in the fundamental (concentration) (*konpon*). How could one who has not attained the nine successive concentrations give rise to them? In accordance with the word "there are" (*u*) in "namely there are non-learners," this meaning is established. Hence the Master's interpretation states: "That passage (argues) from principle; this passage is now taken as a standard. Therefore there are pratyekabuddhas who do not attain the cessation concentration — that is, within the group-dwellers, there are even those who do not attain supernatural powers" (etc.). Now considering that intent: among the group-dwelling (pratyekabuddhas) there are those of liberation through wisdom alone (*e-gedatsu*) and those of liberation through both means (*ku-gedatsu*). The liberation-through-wisdom-alone person relies on the preliminary ground (*mishi-chi*, *anāgamya*) to cut off delusions and realize principle, (being) a person who entirely fails to attain fundamental concentration. The *Sanrin-shō* also has this intent. Hence wherever the Master gives interpretations, his view is that among the group-dwellers there are those who are liberation-through-wisdom-alone practitioners. However, regarding the sūtra text and the Zizhou commentary's interpretation, they discuss the majority (*tabun*) of cases; in reality, this type (liberation-through-wisdom-alone) does exist (among them).
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**Question:** Regarding the sūtra text's clarification of repentance of the three karmas (*sangō-sange*): first, can there be the "superiority-arousing mental volition" (*dōhotsu-shōshi*) in the karma of mind (*i-gō*)?
**Both sides:** If (such superiority-arousing volition) does not (exist in mental karma): when body and speech are outwardly activated, the mind (*i*) is inwardly moved. In the karma of mind, how could there be no superiority-arousing mental volition? Based on this, the Venerable Zizhou, in various places, appears to have interpreted this meaning.
### [Lower Section]
([Colophon note:] Commentary on the chapter on eradicating karmic obstructions (*metsu-gyōshō-hon-sho*); commentary on the chapter on praise by bodhisattvas of the ten directions (*jippō-bosatsu-sandan-bon-sho*); various interpretations in the *Ryōgi-tō* (*Liaoyi-deng* — Lamp of Complete Meaning).) If this is accepted as the case: in the *Vijñaptimātratā-śāstra* (*Yuishiki-ron*), the two types of thought — deliberation (*shinryo-shi*) and decision (*ketsujo-shi*) — constitute the *mana*-course of mental karma (*i-go-dō*), while the superiority-arousing volition (*dōhotsu-shōshi*) is connected to the two karmas of body and speech. And in the *Yogācārabhūmi-śāstra* (*Yuga-ron*), the thought (*shi*, *cetanā*) that does not activate body and speech is called "mental karma" (*i-gō*) (etc.). The view of the *Yuga* and *Yuishiki* (texts) appears to be that mental karma (*i-gō*) does not have the superiority-arousing mental volition (*dōhotsu-shōshi*). (With) both sides unclear, how (should this be understood)?
**Personal view:** As the objection states, when body and speech are outwardly activated, the mind is inwardly moved. In mental karma (*i-gō*), there should without doubt be the superiority-arousing mental volition. Hence in the *Ryōgi-tō* (the section on the first salutation and reverence), (it says): "Now based on principle: the mind (*i*) can also have the superiority-arousing mental volition; because it is said to move the mind (*dōi*); and because of the absence of greed (*mutan*) etc." (etc.) — is not this interpretation clear? In accordance with the present commentary's clarification that "the arousing-thought (*dōhotsu-shi*) rightly gives rise to the three karmas" (etc.) — the intent is the same. Moreover, the commentary on the chapter on praise by bodhisattvas of the ten directions states "what is able to activate body and speech is precisely mental karma (*i-gō*)" — is this not a judgment that the superiority-arousing mental volition that activates body and speech is precisely mental karma? However, regarding the treatise passages: since they clarify (the matter) as common to all three vehicles (*sanzyō*), they do not speak of "the superiority-arousing mental volition of mental karma." Next, regarding the *Yoga* and *Vijñaptimātratā* explanations: the superiority-arousing mental volition that activates body and speech also simultaneously (*kane*) moves the mind, hence calling it "mental karma" would be ambiguous (*ran*). Therefore, keeping (that identification) implicit, only the thought at the time when body and speech are *not* activated — which, without ambiguity, is straightforwardly designated as "mental karma" — is explicitly drawn out (and stated). This is not to say that the superiority-arousing mental volition occurring when body and speech are activated is excluded from being taken as mental karma.
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**Question:** Regarding the sūtra text's clarification that the bodhisattvas of the ten directions praise the Tathāgata with the three karmas of body, speech, and mind — (the question is): if the superiority-arousing mental volition (*dōhotsu-shōshi*) that activates body and speech karmas is designated as mental karma (*i-gō*), how (should this be understood)?
**Answer:** (There should be...) (continues on the next page)