英語訳
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There may be various meanings on each side. Therefore, since this present text is not clear, two explanations are made. Regarding the texts in other volumes, there are two meanings. In the text of volume seven, it appears to be the first dhyāna king. That text states: "At that time, the Sahā world lord Brahmā King immediately rose from his seat, at that time Indra king, etc." After the Sahā world lord, Indra, Vaiśravaṇa, etc. are listed. In that sequence it appears to be the first dhyāna king. The text of volume eight states: "extending throughout the three thousand realms, Sahā world lord." Since it already speaks of the lord of three thousand realms, it should be the fourth dhyāna. The Lotus Sūtra appears to be the fourth dhyāna, the Vimalakīrti Sūtra appears to be the first dhyāna. Also saying: Śikhin means "crest" - the first dhyāna is the crest of fire disasters, the fourth dhyāna is the topknot crest. There should be two meanings for that. The various sūtras' explanations depend on respective meanings. However, the fourth dhyāna Sahā world lord is because it is the lord of one tri-thousand realm. The first dhyāna Sahā world lord is because it is the king of one four-continent realm. Therefore the present commentary's two explanations both have no faults.
Also saying: Among the present commentary's two explanations, the first dhyāna Brahmā king explanation accords with the sūtra text. The reason is that the sūtra's later text states: "At that time the Great Brahmā King with immeasurable brahmā multitudes, Indra and the four kings." The brahmā multitudes are first dhyāna heavens. Next it lists Indra and the four kings. Therefore that Brahmā king already appears to be the first dhyāna king. Hence the first explanation is correct.
Question: In the present sūtra commentary, quoting the abhidharma explanation: "The response body does not separate from the dharma body. Dharma body and response body are neither identical nor separate." Then, if the dharma body in relation to the response body is absolutely non-separate, what fault is there? Proceeding to say: If one sentient being attains buddhahood, there is the fault of all sentient beings attaining buddhahood. Regarding this:
【Lower section】
The matter of attaining buddhahood and realizing the fruit depends on the fulfillment of cultivation. Even if the dharma body absolutely does not separate from the response body, what fault is there? Moreover, the response body absolutely not separating from the dharma body has no fault at all.
The Buddha Mother Commentary states: Someone says: This treatise's intention is to reveal the principle of fundamental and derivative. First it says that the dharma body in relation to the response body has separation and non-separation. Taking the response body in relation to the dharma body is absolutely non-separate. If following true meaning, the three bodies in mutual relation each have the two principles of separation and non-separation. However, the reason this fault exists now is that the dharma body exists in all sentient beings, and its essence is also one. If relating to this principle, all sentient beings are one essence, not separate. If one sentient being manifests the dharma body and attains buddhahood, because the dharma body pervades all sentient beings and is one essence with the response body, therefore all sentient beings should equally attain buddhahood. Because the dharma body is fundamental, the derivative should follow the fundamental - this fault exists. Although taking the response body in relation to the dharma body has the single principle of non-separation, when one sentient being obtains response body buddhahood, there is no fault that all sentient beings should attain buddhahood. Because the response body is not the same essence as all sentient beings, although the dharma body pervades, the fundamental should not follow the derivative. Therefore this fault does not exist. If following true meaning, because the response body in relation to the dharma body is non-separate, this surpasses this fault (meaning).
In my view: Examining this principle, taking the dharma body in relation to the response body, the dharma body is the able-identical, the response body is the object-identical. The able-identical is fundamental, the object-identical is derivative. Therefore following the able-identical fundamental, the object-identical derivative should be shared with all. However, taking the response body in relation to the dharma body, when absolutely identical, when the dharma body in relation to the response body is absolutely identical, following the able-identical,
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just as the object-identical has the principle of sharing, when taking the response body in relation to the dharma body, following the able-identical, there should be the principle of non-sharing. The able-identical is derivative, saying the object-identical fundamental does not follow the derivative. The original intention of the reciprocal criticism should be like this. If following the principle of absolute mutual identity, both sides reciprocally should have the principle of sharing. Now provisionally following one doctrinal approach this is the method.
Question: In the initial chapter of the present volume, praising the Tathāgata's merits is compared to lotus flowers. Then is this lotus flower identical to the udumbara flower, or how should it be understood? There are problems on both sides. If lotus flower is identical to udumbara flower: udumbara flower is Western terminology, translated in Eastern China as "auspicious response flower." Lotus flower is Chinese terminology, in India called puṇḍarīka. Sanskrit and Chinese being already different, we know they are separate flowers. According to this, in certain sūtras: "udumbara flower is a tree flower." The Great Master's explanation is also the same. If following this accordingly, in the present commentary it says "udumbara lotus flower." This explanation appears to see udumbara as identical to lotus flower. How should this be understood?
The Buddha Mother Commentary criticizes saying: Udumbara flowers appear when wheel-turning kings are born into the world. The petals create thousands of variations, their fragrance perfumes ten thousand li. Their appearance is extraordinarily marvelous. Their form is lovable. However lotus flowers lack these qualities. By what reasoning are they called the same flower?
The same commentary answers: They should be called separate-essence flowers. However regarding Zǐzhōu's explanation: because Sanskrit terms are multi-inclusive, the Sanskrit udumbara includes lotus flower. Based on this doctrinal approach, a unified explanation is made.
The third level criticism states: In certain sūtras: "When wheel-turning kings are born into the world, thousand-petal lotus flowers first bloom."
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However examining the doctrinal arrangements, apart from udumbara no separate auspicious response flowers are mentioned. From this we know: the thousand-petal lotus flowers in sūtras should be udumbara flowers. If so, Zǐzhōu's explanation corresponds to sūtra teachings. How should this be understood?
The Mahāvaipulya Dhāraṇī Sūtra states: "Fourth, at that time in Jetavana grove... there were jeweled lotus flowers."
Cháng Yǒu Déyè states: The commentary texts differ. Some only say "udumbara flowers" without the character for lotus. Some texts though having the lotus character... therefore it's not a criticism.
In my view: These two types are the same flower. Regarding gems displaying superior and inferior: the superior in Sanskrit is called cintāmaṇi, translated as "wish-fulfilling jewel." The inferior in Sanskrit is called maṇi, translated as "precious jewel." Though Sanskrit and Chinese differ, they are equally gems. Though being the same lotus flower, the superior is called udumbara flower, the inferior called puṇḍarīka flower. Also regarding lotus flowers, there are water lotuses and tree flowers.
Question: In the Chapter on Fulfilling Wishes through Relying on Emptiness, the Buddha explains correct bodhisattva conduct to the goddess Wish-fulfilling Jewel Light Radiance, presenting the meaning of the eight negations including non-arising, etc. Then does the true principle of dharma-nature transcend the eight negations, or how should it be understood? There are problems on both sides. If transcending the eight negations: regarding unity-difference, annihilation-permanence, arising-ceasing, going-coming, the perfected nature transcends these characteristics. This is what the true principle of eight negations possesses. Why say it transcends the eight negations? Moreover in the Saṃdhinirmocana, Yogācāra, etc., regarding the principle of suchness, they explain the meaning of non-arising, etc. Furthermore in the Pivotal Essentials, presenting the text "only revering the dharma body, not the other two bodies" - this is the initial verse of reverence in the Prajñāpradīpa Treatise. Does this not refer to the eight negations verse? If not transcending the eight negations, in the present commentary: "the intention is regarding the dharma realm, transcending..."